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Groups > comp.programming > #6980
| From | root <NoEMail@home.org> |
|---|---|
| Newsgroups | comp.programming |
| Subject | Re: "The median may not be more than one standard deviation away from the mean" |
| Date | 2016-10-18 16:43 +0000 |
| Organization | Linux Advocacy |
| Message-ID | <nu5jfn$9ok$1@news.albasani.net> (permalink) |
| References | <e74fb2a4-8b83-4cc0-bc0e-f3f5ade45bea@googlegroups.com> |
Paul N <gw7rib@aol.com> wrote: > On comp.programming, Malcom McLean wrote "Anyway, I've consulted with the bulging brains on Math Exchange, and the median may not be more than one standard deviation away from the mean." > > I've not done much maths for a long while, but this piqued my interest, and I have managed to come up with a proof of it. It may perhaps be a bit unconventional, and I'd be interested in comments, not only whether it is right, but also whether it is over-complicated, naive or anything. > > Malcom was talking about statistics, but I more usually deal with probability and so my proof is in that area. I presume it could be used in the context of statistics simply by letting each datum be an equally likely event. > > So - suppose we have a variable X with a distribution P - it can be discrete, continuous, or a bit of both. Suppose it has a median m, and a mean u. (I'm already using m for median, and u looks more like a mu anyway...) Further suppose that u > m, with x = u - m. > > We can divide the distribution of X up into three "tranches", as follows: > > P1 = Prob( X <= m ) > > P2 = Prob(m < X < u) > > P3 = Prob(X >= u) > > This gives P1 + P2 + P3 = 1, and also P1 >= 1/2 as m is the median. From this it follows that P1 >= P3. P1+P2+P3 >=1 > > Now suppose we were calculating the mean of the distribution. The first tranche are all at least x short of u, and so give in total a "shortfall" of at least P1 x. The second tranche also all lie below u. So for u to be the mean, the third tranche must contribute at least P1 x above the mean. If we let u2 be the mean, over the third tranche only, of X-u, we have that P3 u2 >= P1 x. > > Now, the variance of any distribution is "the mean of the square minus the square of the mean", and since the variance cannot be negative, this means that the mean of the square must be at least the square of the mean. So if we let v2 be the mean value of (X-u)^2 over the third tranche, this result gives us v2 >= u2^2. > > Now the variance of the original distribution will be at least P1 x^2 from the first tranche, something non-negative from the second tranche, and P3 v2 from the third tranche. > > Var >= P1 x^2 + P3 v2 >= P1 x^2 + P3 u2^2 >= P1 x^2 + (P1^2/P3) x^2 >= P1 x^2 + P1 x^2 >= x^2 > > So the standard deviation is at least x. > > Applying the same logic to -X allows the proof to work where u < m as well. > > I was hoping to cross=post this to both comp.programming and sci.math, but I don't think Google allows such things.)
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"The median may not be more than one standard deviation away from the mean" Paul N <gw7rib@aol.com> - 2016-10-17 14:16 -0700 Re: "The median may not be more than one standard deviation away from the mean" Don Reble <djr@nk.ca> - 2016-10-17 17:39 -0600 Re: "The median may not be more than one standard deviation away from the mean" Richard Heathfield <rjh@cpax.org.uk> - 2016-10-18 00:55 +0100 Re: "The median may not be more than one standard deviation away from the mean" root <NoEMail@home.org> - 2016-10-18 16:43 +0000
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