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Groups > comp.programming > #6979
| From | Richard Heathfield <rjh@cpax.org.uk> |
|---|---|
| Newsgroups | comp.programming, sci.math |
| Subject | Re: "The median may not be more than one standard deviation away from the mean" |
| Date | 2016-10-18 00:55 +0100 |
| Organization | Fix this later |
| Message-ID | <nu3odq$coj$3@dont-email.me> (permalink) |
| References | <e74fb2a4-8b83-4cc0-bc0e-f3f5ade45bea@googlegroups.com> |
Cross-posted to 2 groups.
On 17/10/16 22:16, Paul N wrote: > On comp.programming, Malcom McLean wrote "Anyway, I've consulted with > the bulging brains on Math Exchange, and the median may not be more > than one standard deviation away from the mean." > > I've not done much maths for a long while, but this piqued my > interest, and I have managed to come up with a proof of it. It may > perhaps be a bit unconventional, and I'd be interested in comments, > not only whether it is right, but also whether it is > over-complicated, naive or anything. > > Malcom was talking about statistics, but I more usually deal with > probability and so my proof is in that area. I presume it could be > used in the context of statistics simply by letting each datum be an > equally likely event. > > So - suppose we have a variable X with a distribution P - it can be > discrete, continuous, or a bit of both. Suppose it has a median m, > and a mean u. (I'm already using m for median, and u looks more like > a mu anyway...) Further suppose that u > m, with x = u - m. > > We can divide the distribution of X up into three "tranches", as > follows: > > P1 = Prob( X <= m ) > > P2 = Prob(m < X < u) > > P3 = Prob(X >= u) > > This gives P1 + P2 + P3 = 1, and also P1 >= 1/2 as m is the median. > From this it follows that P1 >= P3. > > Now suppose we were calculating the mean of the distribution. The > first tranche are all at least x short of u, and so give in total a > "shortfall" of at least P1 x. The second tranche also all lie below > u. So for u to be the mean, the third tranche must contribute at > least P1 x above the mean. If we let u2 be the mean, over the third > tranche only, of X-u, we have that P3 u2 >= P1 x. > > Now, the variance of any distribution is "the mean of the square > minus the square of the mean", and since the variance cannot be > negative, this means that the mean of the square must be at least the > square of the mean. So if we let v2 be the mean value of (X-u)^2 over > the third tranche, this result gives us v2 >= u2^2. > > Now the variance of the original distribution will be at least P1 x^2 > from the first tranche, something non-negative from the second > tranche, and P3 v2 from the third tranche. > > Var >= P1 x^2 + P3 v2 >= P1 x^2 + P3 u2^2 >= P1 x^2 + (P1^2/P3) x^2 > >= P1 x^2 + P1 x^2 >= x^2 > > So the standard deviation is at least x. > > Applying the same logic to -X allows the proof to work where u < m as > well. > > I was hoping to cross=post this to both comp.programming and > sci.math, but I don't think Google allows such things.) No comments to make - but I have cross-posted to sci.math in accordance with your wishes. -- Richard Heathfield Email: rjh at cpax dot org dot uk "Usenet is a strange place" - dmr 29 July 1999 Sig line 4 vacant - apply within
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"The median may not be more than one standard deviation away from the mean" Paul N <gw7rib@aol.com> - 2016-10-17 14:16 -0700 Re: "The median may not be more than one standard deviation away from the mean" Don Reble <djr@nk.ca> - 2016-10-17 17:39 -0600 Re: "The median may not be more than one standard deviation away from the mean" Richard Heathfield <rjh@cpax.org.uk> - 2016-10-18 00:55 +0100 Re: "The median may not be more than one standard deviation away from the mean" root <NoEMail@home.org> - 2016-10-18 16:43 +0000
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