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Groups > comp.lang.javascript > #28699
| From | Martin Honnen <mahotrash@yahoo.de> |
|---|---|
| Newsgroups | comp.lang.javascript |
| Subject | Re: Is it possible to reassign js function to an object without including parameter(s)? |
| Date | 2015-09-20 16:42 +0200 |
| Organization | Liberty Development |
| Message-ID | <mtmgko$fi9$1@news.albasani.net> (permalink) |
| References | <40bb4feb-2cbf-4b11-86b5-4f845eee6ca8@googlegroups.com> |
justaguy wrote:
> I have some js functions with one parameter and would like to re-assign a function to another object. For instance,
> function f1(p1)
> {
> window.open('myscript.html?'+p1);
> }
>
> function f2(p2)
> {
> window.open('myscript2.html?'+p2);
> }
>
> The HTML file may read like this:
> <span id="me1" onclick="f1(p1)">stuff 1</span>
> <span id="me2" onclick="f2(p2)">stuff 2</span>
Where are the variables p1 and p2 used in the function calls f1(p1) and
f2(p2) defined?
>
> Now, say, I want to reassign f2 to the object id of me1 on-the-fly and p2 value is unknown to me yet, simple reassignment:
> document.getElementById('me1').onclick = f2; // won't work.
You can assign the function value f2 to the onclick handler. When the
onclick is executed by the browser, the value of the the parameter p2
would be undefined.
> and yet, I can't re-assign like this:
> document.getElementById('me1').onclick = f2(p2); // because p2 value is unknown yet.
>
> How to accomplish the above if doable? Or another way to tackle it? Thanks.
It is not clear where you expect the value of p2 to come from in any of
your examples.
Note that <span id="me2" onclick="f2(p2)">stuff 2</span> sets the
onclick handler to an anonymous function
function(event) { f2(p2); }
where your p2 is not declared either, at least as long as you don't set
up a global variable of the name p2 elsewhere.
Or do you have <span id="me2" onclick="f2('p2')">stuff 2</span>?
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Is it possible to reassign js function to an object without including parameter(s)? justaguy <lichunshen84@gmail.com> - 2015-09-20 07:06 -0700
Re: Is it possible to reassign js function to an object without including parameter(s)? Martin Honnen <mahotrash@yahoo.de> - 2015-09-20 16:42 +0200
Re: Is it possible to reassign js function to an object without including parameter(s)? justaguy <lichunshen84@gmail.com> - 2015-09-20 08:58 -0700
Re: Is it possible to reassign js function to an object without including parameter(s)? danny <dann90038@gmail.com> - 2015-09-24 13:03 -0700
Re: Is it possible to reassign js function to an object without including parameter(s)? "Evertjan." <exxjxw.hannivoort@inter.nl.net> - 2015-09-25 09:11 +0200
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