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Groups > gnu.bash.bug > #16356
| From | Eli Schwartz <eschwartz@archlinux.org> |
|---|---|
| Newsgroups | gnu.bash.bug |
| Subject | Re: Command substitution |
| Date | 2020-06-02 22:02 -0400 |
| Message-ID | <mailman.1030.1591149794.2541.bug-bash@gnu.org> (permalink) |
| References | <87mu5kgbxu.fsf@hobgoblin.ariadne.com> <8e513f8b-c541-ba1e-5f00-85c0afd6068f@archlinux.org> |
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On 6/2/20 9:44 PM, Dale R. Worley wrote: > Naively, I expect that > > FOO="$( command2 )" > command1 $FOO > > has the same effect as > > command1 $( command2 ) > > and > > FOO="$( command2 )" > command1 "$FOO" > > has the same effect as > > command1 "$( command2 )" > > Has anyone pushed the boundaries of this and can tell me whether there > are gotchas? What boundaries were you expecting? If this is related to the thread about the value of $? after command substitution in variable assignment vs. command arguments... that's already a gotcha according to many people. Despite being both documented and logical. Aside for that, obviously in one case you don't have a "FOO" variable in the shell environment, which does seem like a fairly major difference as it's a very common pattern for people to reuse the results of command substitution multiple times. Perhaps you meant to say "executes the same command process" instead of "has the same effect"? -- Eli Schwartz Arch Linux Bug Wrangler and Trusted User
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Re: Command substitution Eli Schwartz <eschwartz@archlinux.org> - 2020-06-02 22:02 -0400
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