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From: Niklas Holsti <niklas.holsti@tidorum.invalid>
Newsgroups: comp.lang.c++
Subject: Re: Implicit convervsion of bool to int: why?
Date: Sat, 30 Jul 2011 13:18:14 +0300
Organization: Tidorum Ltd
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MikeP wrote:
> Robert Wessel wrote:
>> On Sat, 16 Jul 2011 04:29:14 -0500, "MikeP" <mp011011@some.org> wrote:
>>
>>> Why can bool types be implicitly converted to ints? 
  ...
>> There are languages which have no implicit conversions.
> 
> The Haskell, Scheme, OCaml set, yes?

For an example of a language without implicit conversions, from the same 
programming paradigm as C++ (imperative, procedural), take Ada.

-- 
Niklas Holsti
Tidorum Ltd
niklas holsti tidorum fi
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