Path: csiph.com!eternal-september.org!reader02.eternal-september.org!.POSTED!not-for-mail
From: Tim Rentsch
Newsgroups: comp.std.c
Subject: Re: contradiction about the INFINITY macro
Date: Mon, 17 Jan 2022 05:35:26 -0800
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James Kuyper writes:
> On Monday, January 3, 2022 at 3:56:22 PM UTC-5, Tim Rentsch wrote:
>
>> Keith Thompson writes:
>>
>>> James Kuyper writes:
>
> ...
>
>>>> The standard says nothing to that effect. The only meaningful
>>>> thing it says is that a diagnostic is required (5.1.1.3p1). I do
>>>> not consider the standard's definition of "constraint" to be
>>>> meaningful: "restriction, either syntactic or semantic, by which
>>>> the exposition of language elements is to be interpreted" (3.8).
>
> ...
>
>>> The standard's definition of "constraint" is uncomfortably vague
>>> -- but that doesn't mean I'm comfortable ignoring it.
>>>
>>> Given the definition of a "constraint" as a "restriction, either
>>> syntactic or semantic, by which the exposition of language
>>> elements is to be interpreted", it seems to me to be at least
>>> plausible that when a constraint is violated, the "exposition of
>>> language elements" cannot be interpreted.
>
> ...
>
>>> I'm not saying that this is the only way to interpret that wording.
>>> It's vague enough to permit a number of reasonable readings. [...]
>>
>> So you're saying that the meaning of the definition of constraint
>> is to some extent subjective, ie, reader dependent?
>
> As I said above, it seems to me to be so poorly worded that it's not
> clear to me that it has any meaning, much less one that is subjective.
> Since other people disagree with me on that point, there would
> appear to be some subjectivity at play in that judgment, but after
> reading their arguments, I remain at a loss as to how they can
> interpret that phrase as being meaningful.
So is what you're saying that whether the meaning is subjective is
itself a subjective question?