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From: Ben Finney <ben+python@benfinney.id.au>
Subject: Re: datetime as subclass of date
Date: Fri, 24 Jan 2014 17:54:26 +1100
References: <CANc-5Uw5z84=vAMVJaCH-KCSR=1q8_zTKuspaF2zzOG9qtVu4Q@mail.gmail.com> <mailman.5913.1390515296.18130.python-list@python.org> <roy-29B820.19102323012014@news.panix.com>
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Roy Smith <roy@panix.com> writes:

> Ben Finney <ben+python@benfinney.id.au> wrote:
>
> > Makes sense, since ‘datetime’ can do everything ‘date’ can do, and
> > is conceptually a subset of the same concept.
>
> That's reasonable, but given that, it's weird that date(2014, 1, 23) == 
> datetime(2014, 1, 23) is False.  You would think it should be True, in 
> the same way that 1 + 0j == 1 is True.

Hmm. It does make sense to me that ‘datetime.date(2014, 1, 23) ==
datetime.datetime(2014, 1, 23)’.

I can come up with rationalisations for why it isn't, but they're not
satisfactory. I also don't consider it a bug, though. I'm conflicted :-)

-- 
 \          “Those who write software only for pay should go hurt some |
  `\                 other field.” —Erik Naggum, in _gnu.misc.discuss_ |
_o__)                                                                  |
Ben Finney